Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường THCS Trần Hưng Đạo, Kon Tum

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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TP KON TUM TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ 2 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 – THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 60 PHÚT Mức độ nhận thức Tổng TT Kĩ năng Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao Thời gian Thời Thời Thời gian Thời gian Tỉ lệ (phút) Tỉ lệ gian Tỉ lệ gian Tỉ lệ (phút) Tỉ lệ (%)/câu (phút) (%)/câu (%)/câu (phút) (%)/câu (phút) (%)/câu 1 Listening 12,5 % 3 7,5 % 4 20 % 7 5 câu 3 câu 8 câu 2 Language 12,5% 6 2,5 % 2 5% 4 20 % 12 5 câu 1 câu 2 câu 8 câu 3 Reading 10 % 6 5% 3 5% 4 20 % 13 4 câu 2 câu 2 câu 8 câu 4 Writing 10 % 6 10 % 7 20 % 13 4 câu 4 câu 8 câu Total (Written 35 % 15 25 % 15 20% 15 80 % 45 Test) 14 câu 10 câu 8 câu 32 câu (28 TN + 4 TL) 5 Speaking 5% 4 5% 4 10 % 7 20 % 15 Tổng 40 % 19 30 % 19 20 % 15 10 % 7 100% 60 Tỉ lệ (%) 40 30 20 10 Tỉ lệ chung 70 30 (%)
BẢNG ĐẶC TẢ KỸ THUẬT ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ 2 - LỚP 6 TT Kĩ năng Đơn vị kiến thức/ kỹ Mức độ kiến thức, kỹ Số câu hỏi theo mức độ nhận thức Tổng năng năng cần kiểm tra đánh Nhận biết Thông Vận dụng Vận dụng giá hiểu cao TN TL TN TL TN TL T TL TN TL N I Listening 1. T/F Nhận biết: - Nghe một đoạn hội thoại - Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết / độc thoại khoảng 1.5 phút về: (khoảng 100 – 120 từ) + số lượng - Học sinh trả lời câu hỏi + thời gian 3 3 bằng cách chọn phương án + ngữ cảnh đúng /sai + sự kiện + nơi chốn + tên người / địa danh Thông hiểu: - Hiểu được nội dung chính của đoạn độc thoại / hội 1 1 thoại để chọn câu trả lời đúng sai (True / False). Vận dụng: - Từ nội dung của bài đưa ra nhận định đánh giá suy ra được nội dung. - Sử dụng được các chi tiết đúng loại trừ các chi tiết sai để chọn đáp án. 2. Gap filling/MCQs Nhận biết: - Nghe một đoạn hội thoại - Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết /độc thoại (khoảng 100 – về: vị trí, địa điểm, thời 2 2 120 từ) 1.5 phút gian… Thông hiểu: - Hiểu được nội dung chính của đoạn đọc thoại / hội 2 2 thoại về chủ đề để điền thông tin còn thiếu vào chỗ
trống (gap-filling) hoặc/và chọn thông tin đúng để trả lời câu hỏi (MCQs). Vận dụng: Trắc nghiệm khách quan 4 đáp án/ điền từ vào chỗ trống - Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để chọn đáp án đúng. (Lưu ý: 4 lựa chọn các phương án nhiễu cần khác biệt rõ ràng với đáp án đúng về âm, số...) II Language 1. Phonology Nhận biết: - Sounds /e/ and / æ / + Nguyên âm: /e/ and / æ / / әu / and / au / + Trọng âm của các từ có 2 - Stress in two syllable âm tiết thông qua các từ 2 2 words vựng quen thuộc. Thông hiểu: Kiểm tra tích hợp ở nội dung nghe Vận dụng: Kiểm tra tích hợp ở nội dung nói 2. Vocabulary Nhận biết: Dạng câu hỏi MCQs - Từ / cụm từ trong sách 1 1 Các từ vựng đã học theo giáo khoa. chủ điểm: - Television Thông hiểu: - sports and games - Hiểu và phân biệt được - Cities of the word các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã - Our houses in the future học. 1 1 - Our greener world - Nắm được mối liên kết và - Robots kết hợp từ trong bối cảnh và ngữ cảnh tương ứng.
Vận dụng: - Cấu tạo từ, sử dụng từ phù hợp với văn cảnh (danh từ, 2 2 tính từ, động từ, trạng từ…); từ đồng nghĩa, trái nghĩa 3. Grammar Nhận biết: Các chủ điểm ngữ pháp đã - future simple 2 2 học: - conjunction in compound sentences: and, but, so Thông hiểu: - past simple - Biết cách sử dụng câu liên - Imperative từ trong ngữ cảnh. - Future simple - Biết cách sử dụng câu có - Possessive pronouns đại từ sở hữu. - Might for possibility Vận dụng: - First conditional - Vận dụng những điểm ngữ pháp đã học vào bài viết / nói / nghe / đọc. III Reading Nhận biết: 1. Cloze test Nhận ra được các thành tố 3 3 Hiểu được bài đọc có độ ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt dài khoảng 120 - 150 từ về văn bản chủ điểm đã học: - Sports and games Thông hiểu: - Nghĩa của từ trong ngữ cảnh phù hợp. - Loại từ Vận dụng: - Phân tích mối liên kết giữa các câu trong văn bản 1 1 để chọn liên từ phù hợp. (because) 2. Reading Nhận biết: comprehension - Thông tin chi tiết về địa Hiểu được nội dung chính điểm, thời gian, cách 1 1 và nội dung chi tiết đoạn thức… văn có độ dài khoảng 120 -
150 từ, về chủ điểm: Our Thông hiểu: houses in the future - Hiểu ý chính của bài đọc và chọn câu trả lời phù hợp. - Hiểu được nghĩa tham 2 2 chiếu. - Loại trừ các chi tiết để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp. - Từ đồng nghĩa Vận dụng: - Đoán nghĩa của từ trong 1 1 văn cảnh. - Hiểu ngụ ý tác giả. Vận dụng cao - Thể hiện quan điểm cá nhân về nội dung bài đọc. (Tích hợp vào kiểm tra kỹ năng viết) IV Writing 1. Sentence Thông hiểu: transformation - Viết lại câu điều kiện - Viết lại câu sử dụng đại từ sở hữu. - Viết câu với conjunction 4 4 in compound sentences: and, but, so - Viết câu với might for possibility 2. Sentence building Vận dụng: 4 4 Sử dụng từ/ cụm từ gợi ý - Sử dụng các cấu trúc và từ và các cấu trúc đã học để vựng đã học để viết câu viết thành câu hoàn chỉnh hoàn chỉnh Tổng bài viết 14 10 4 4 28 4 V Speaking 1. Self-introduction - Nhận biết và hiểu cách trả 5% 5% Giới thiệu bản thân lời thông tin cơ bản như tên, tuổi, lớp, sở thích cá nhân… 2. Topic speaking Vận dụng: Sử dụng từ vựng 5% 5% Trình bày 1 bài nói cá nhân và cấu trúc linh hoạt, diễn (đã có thời gian chuẩn bị tả được nội dung cần nói
trước khi nói) về một trong theo những cách khác nhau. số những chủ đề liên quan Phát âm tương đối chuẩn đến bài từ 7 đến bài 11 3. Q&A Vận dụng cao: Hiều và trả 10% 10% lời được câu hỏi của GK và trả lời 1 cách linh hoạt. Sử dụng ngôn ngữ 1 cách tự nhiên và thuần thục Tổng phần nói 5% 5% 10% 20 % 14 10 4 4 28 4 câu (10%) (35 5% (25 5% (10 (10 (10 TN Speak (20%) Tổng %) %) %) %) %) (70 %) Tổng chung 40 30 20 10 70 30
PHÒNG GD & ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 -------------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 (Đề này có 03 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Họ và tên: .................................................................... Lớp: ............. Mã đề 601 Scores: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2,0 points) Task 1. Listen and tick True (T) or False (F). There is one example. (1,0 point) T F Question 0: She’s in class 7. √ Question 1: Her name is Daisy Speak. Question 2: The name of the book is Aunts. Question 3: The sports video is about tennis . Question 4: The kind of music is film music . Task 2. Listen and circle A, B or C (1,0 point) Question 5. Which animal is Tom’s favourite pet? A. The mouse B. The black spider C. The snake Question 6. Which girl is Fred’s cousin? A. She’s wearing the blue dress. B. She’s wearing the yellow dress. C. She’s wearing a yellow shirt and trousers. Question 7. What's Kim doing? A. cooking the supper B. watching TV C. washing her hair Question 8. What can Paul have for his game? A. The old camera B. The box C. The old map II. LANGUAGE (2,0 points) Circle the correct answer A, B, C, or D Question 9. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others’. A. natural B. garden C. tomato D. bath Question 10. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. A. marine B. discount C. wardrobe D. pancake Question 11. Home is place in the world. A. the safest B. the safe C. the most safest D. the most safe Question 12. We tried our best____________we didn’t get good marks. A. because B. so C. but D. and Question 13. If Lan finishes her class, she ___________her mother with the housework. Page 1/21
A. helping B. help C. helps D. will help Question 14. Are there any good programs______ teenagers on TV tonight? A. with B. for C. to D. of Question 15. What would you like to drink?- ____________. A. I’m sorry. B. Some coffee, please. C. Don’t worry. D. Not at all. Question 16. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentence. I think robots now cannot do complicated things or communicate with people. A. easy B. simple C. uncomplicated D. difficult III. READING (2,0 points) Task 1. Complete the reading passage. Write ONE suitable word in each blank. (1,0 point) Physical activity is the (17) _______ obvious benefit of sports participation. Children often spend too much time watching television or (18) _______ video games. But sports practices and games provide an opportunity for exercise that can help keep kids in shape and healthy. Sports participation can help children develop social skills that will benefit them throughout their entire lives. They learn to interact not only with other children their age, (19) _______ also with older individuals in their coaches and sports officials. Kids learn leadership skills, team-building skills and communication skills that will help them in school, their future (20) _______ and personal relationships. Question 17. A. more B. least C. much D. most Question 18. A. watching B. paying C. playing D. doing Question 19. A. and B. but C. then D. so Question 20. A. world B. shape C. career D. game Task 2. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question (1,0 point). I always wish to have a motor home in my life. My motor-home will not need to be big, but it might have everything I need inside. There will be a small sofa and a lovely table in the head of the car. This will be the place for my friends when they visit me. It is like a living room. The biggest part of my motor home will be my kitchen. It will be in the middle of the car. There will be an automatic dishwasher, a modern fridge, a small oven and an automatic washing machine in the kitchen. A small toilet will be in the kitchen, too. The last part will be my bedroom, also my entertainment place. There will be a small bed, a wireless TV, and a high-tech computer. Everything might be small in my motor home. It would be fantastic if I had my own motor-home. The best thing about having a motor home is that I can drive it myself and travel around. Question 21. What kind of the house does the writer wish to have? A. a space houseboat B. An auto house C. A motor home Question 22. How many parts are there in the house? A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 Question 23. The word “ it” (in line 4 ) refers to “___________.” Page 2/21
A. a motorhome B. a kitchen C. a bedroom Question 24. What is NOT true about this house? A. It has everything that the write needs inside. B. The writer will have to do the laundry by hand. C. It will not be very big. IV. WRITING Task 1. Choose the best sentence that has the same meaning as the given by circling A, B, C or D. (1,0 point) Question 25. Danang attracts a lot of tourists. It has beautiful and clean beaches. A. It has beautiful and clean beaches because DaNang attracts a lot of tourists. B. Because DaNang it has beautiful and clean beaches, Danang attracts a lot of tourists. C. Because DaNang attracts a lot of tourists, it has beautiful and clean beaches. D. Because DaNang has beautiful and clean beaches, it attracts a lot of tourists. Question 26. You should try hard, or you won’t pass the exam. A. If you don’t study hard, you won’t pass the exam. B. If you don’t study hard, you will pass the exam. C. Unless you don’t study hard, you won’t pass the exam. D. If you study hard, you won’t pass the exam. Question 27. This is my new bicycle, not your new bicycle. A. This new bicycle is me, not yours. B. This is my new bicycle , not yours new bicycle. C. This new bicycle is mine, not yours. D. This new bicycle is mine, not your. Question 28. It will probably rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. A. It will rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. B. It might not rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. C. It might rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. D. It will not rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. Task 2. Complete each of the following sentences using the cues given. You can use other words in addition to the cues to complete the sentences.(1.0 point) Example: / what/ your/ favorite/ type/ TV programme? → What is your favourite type of TV programme? Question 29: The / weather / bad, /so /they / cancel /their picnic. . Question 30: Robots/ not be able to/ think/ like/ humans. . Question 31: My future house / have/ a/ beautiful sea view. . Question 32: I / not like / TV programme because it/ so boring. . ------ THE END ------ Page 3/21
PHÒNG GD & ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 -------------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 (Đề này có 03 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Họ và tên: .................................................................... Lớp: ............. Mã đề 602 Scores: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2,0 points) Task 1. Listen and tick True (T) or False (F). There is one example. (1,0 point) Sentences T F Question 0: She’s in class 7. √ Question 1: Her name is Daisy Speak. Question 2: The name of the book is Aunts. Question 3: The sports video is about tennis . Question 4: The kind of music is film music . Task 2. Listen and circle A, B or C (1,0 point) Question 5. Which animal is Tom’s favourite pet? A. The snake B. The mouse C. The black spider Question 6. Which girl is Fred’s cousin? A. She’s wearing the blue dress. B. She’s wearing the yellow dress. C. She’s wearing a yellow shirt and trousers. Question 7. What's Kim doing? A. cooking the supper B. watching TV C. washing her hair Question 8. What can Paul have for his game? A. The box B. The old map C. The old camera II. LANGUAGE (2,0 points) Circle the correct answer A, B, C, or D Question 9. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others’. A. tomato B. bath C. natural D. garden Question 10. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentence. I think robots now cannot do complicated things or communicate with people. A. simple B. easy C. uncomplicated D. difficult Question 11. Are there any good programs______ teenagers on TV tonight? A. to B. of C. with D. for Question 12. Home is place in the world. A. the safest B. the most safest C. the safe D. the most safe Page 4/21
Question 13. We tried our best____________we didn’t get good marks. A. but B. so C. because D. and Question 14. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. A. pancake B. wardrobe C. discount D. marine Question 15. If Lan finishes her class, she ___________her mother with the housework. A. will help B. helps C. helping D. help Question 16. What would you like to drink?- ____________. A. I’m sorry. B. Not at all. C. Don’t worry. D. Some coffee, please. III. READING (2,0 points) Task 1. Complete the reading passage. Write ONE suitable word in each blank. (1,0 point) Physical activity is the (17) _______ obvious benefit of sports participation. Children often spend too much time watching television or (18) _______ video games. But sports practices and games provide an opportunity for exercise that can help keep kids in shape and healthy. Sports participation can help children develop social skills that will benefit them throughout their entire lives. They learn to interact not only with other children their age, (19) _______ also with older individuals in their coaches and sports officials. Kids learn leadership skills, team-building skills and communication skills that will help them in school, their future (20) _______ and personal relationships. Question 17. A. least B. more C. most D. much Question 18. A. watching B. doing C. playing D. paying Question 19. A. and B. then C. but D. so Question 20. A. game B. career C. world D. shape Task 2. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question (1,0 point). I always wish to have a motor home in my life. My motor-home will not need to be big, but it might have everything I need inside. There will be a small sofa and a lovely table in the head of the car. This will be the place for my friends when they visit me. It is like a living room. The biggest part of my motor home will be my kitchen. It will be in the middle of the car. There will be an automatic dishwasher, a modern fridge, a small oven and an automatic washing machine in the kitchen. A small toilet will be in the kitchen, too. The last part will be my bedroom, also my entertainment place. There will be a small bed, a wireless TV, and a high-tech computer. Everything might be small in my motor home. It would be fantastic if I had my own motor-home. The best thing about having a motor home is that I can drive it myself and travel around. Question 21. What kind of the house does the writer wish to have? A. An auto house B. a space houseboat C. A motor home Question 22. How many parts are there in the house? A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 Question 23. The word “ it” (in line 4 ) refers to “___________.” A. a bedroom B. a motorhome C. a kitchen Page 5/21
Question 24. What is NOT true about this house? A. It has everything that the write needs inside B. It will not be very big. C. The writer will have to do the laundry by hand. IV. WRITING Task 1. Choose the best sentence that has the same meaning as the given by circling A, B, C or D. (1,0 point) Question 25. It will probably rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. A. It will not rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. B. It will rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. C. It might not rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. D. It might rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow . Question 26. Danang attracts a lot of tourists. It has beautiful and clean beaches. A. Because DaNang has beautiful and clean beaches, it attracts a lot of tourists. B. Because DaNang it has beautiful and clean beaches, Danang attracts a lot of tourists. C. It has beautiful and clean beaches because DaNang attracts a lot of tourists. D. Because DaNang attracts a lot of tourists, it has beautiful and clean beaches. Question 27. This is my new bicycle, not your new bicycle. A. This new bicycle is mine, not yours. B. This new bicycle is mine, not your. C. This new bicycle is me, not yours. D. This is my new bicycle , not yours new bicycle. Question 28. You should try hard, or you won’t pass the exam. A. Unless you don’t study hard, you won’t pass the exam. B. If you don’t study hard, you will pass the exam. C. If you study hard, you won’t pass the exam. D. If you don’t study hard, you won’t pass the exam. Task 2. Complete each of the following sentences using the cues given. You can use other words in addition to the cues to complete the sentences.(1.0 point) Example: / what/ your/ favorite/ type/ TV programme? → What is your favourite type of TV programme? Question 29: The / weather / bad, /so /they / cancel /their picnic. . Question 30: Robots/ not be able to/ think/ like/ humans. . Question 31: My future house / have/ a/ beautiful sea view. . Question 32: I / not like / TV programme because it/ so boring. . ------ THE END ------ Page 6/21
PHÒNG GD & ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 -------------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 (Đề này có 03 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Họ và tên: .................................................................... Lớp: ............. Mã đề 603 Scores: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2,0 points) Task 1. Listen and tick True (T) or False (F). There is one example. (1,0 point) Sentences T F Question 0: She’s in class 7. √ Question 1: Her name is Daisy Speak. Question 2: The name of the book is Aunts. Question 3: The sports video is about tennis . Question 4: The kind of music is film music . Task 2. Listen and circle A, B or C (1,0 point) Question 5. Which animal is Tom’s favourite pet? A. The black spider B. The mouse C. The snake Question 6. Which girl is Fred’s cousin? A. She’s wearing the blue dress. B. She’s wearing the yellow dress. C. She’s wearing a yellow shirt and trousers. Question 7. What's Kim doing? A. watching TV B. washing her hair C. cooking the supper Question 8. What can Paul have for his game? A. The box B. The old map C. The old camera II. LANGUAGE (2,0 points) Circle the correct answer A, B, C, or D Question 9. If Lan finishes her class, she ___________her mother with the housework. A. will help B. helps C. help D. helping Question 10. We tried our best____________we didn’t get good marks. A. and B. because C. but D. so Question 11. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentence. I think robots now cannot do complicated things or communicate with people. A. easy B. simple C. uncomplicated D. difficult Question 12. Are there any good programs______ teenagers on TV tonight? A. of B. to C. for D. with Question 13. What would you like to drink?- ____________. Page 7/21
A. Don’t worry B. I’m sorry C. Some coffee, please. D. Not at all Question 14. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. A. wardrobe B. discount C. pancake D. marine Question 15. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others’. A. bath B. tomato C. garden D. natural Question 16. Home is place in the world. A. the most safe B. the most safest C. the safest C. the safe III. READING (2,0 points) Task 1. Complete the reading passage. Write ONE suitable word in each blank. (1,0 point) Physical activity is the (17) _______ obvious benefit of sports participation. Children often spend too much time watching television or (18) _______ video games. But sports practices and games provide an opportunity for exercise that can help keep kids in shape and healthy. Sports participation can help children develop social skills that will benefit them throughout their entire lives. They learn to interact not only with other children their age, (19) _______ also with older individuals in their coaches and sports officials. Kids learn leadership skills, team-building skills and communication skills that will help them in school, their future (20) _______ and personal relationships. Question 17. A. least B. more C. most D. much Question 18. A. doing B. playing C. watching D. paying Question 19. A. but B. then C. so D. and Question 20. A. career B. world C. shape D. game Task 2. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question (1,0 point). I always wish to have a motor home in my life. My motor-home will not need to be big, but it might have everything I need inside. There will be a small sofa and a lovely table in the head of the car. This will be the place for my friends when they visit me. It is like a living room. The biggest part of my motor home will be my kitchen. It will be in the middle of the car. There will be an automatic dishwasher, a modern fridge, a small oven and an automatic washing machine in the kitchen. A small toilet will be in the kitchen, too. The last part will be my bedroom, also my entertainment place. There will be a small bed, a wireless TV, and a high-tech computer. Everything might be small in my motor home. It would be fantastic if I had my own motor-home. The best thing about having a motor home is that I can drive it myself and travel around. Question 21. What kind of the house does the writer wish to have? A. a space houseboat B. An auto house C. A motor home Question 22. How many parts are there in the house? A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 Question 23. The word “ it” (in line 4 ) refers to “___________.” A. a kitchen B. a motorhome C. a bedroom Page 8/21
Question 24. What is NOT true about this house? A. It will not be very big. B. The writer will have to do the laundry by hand. C. It has everything that the write needs inside. IV. WRITING Task 1. Choose the best sentence that has the same meaning as the given by circling A, B, C or D. (1,0 point) Question 25. It will probably rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. A. It will not rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. B. It will rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. C. It might not rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. D. It might rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. Question 26. Danang attracts a lot of tourists. It has beautiful and clean beaches. A. Because DaNang it has beautiful and clean beaches, Danang attracts a lot of tourists. B. Because DaNang has beautiful and clean beaches, it attracts a lot of tourists. C. It has beautiful and clean beaches because DaNang attracts a lot of tourists. D. Because DaNang attracts a lot of tourists, it has beautiful and clean beaches. Question 27. You should try hard, or you won’t pass the exam. A. If you don’t study hard, you will pass the exam. B. If you don’t study hard, you won’t pass the exam. C. Unless you don’t study hard, you won’t pass the exam. D. If you study hard, you won’t pass the exam. Question 28. This is my new bicycle, not your new bicycle. A. This is my new bicycle , not yours new bicycle. B. This new bicycle is mine, not yours. C. This new bicycle is me, not yours. D. This new bicycle is mine, not your. Task 2. Complete each of the following sentences using the cues given. You can use other words in addition to the cues to complete the sentences.(1.0 point) Example: / what/ your/ favorite/ type/ TV programme? → What is your favourite type of TV programme? Question 29: The / weather / bad, /so /they / cancel /their picnic. . Question 30: Robots/ not be able to/ think/ like/ humans. . Question 31: My future house / have/ a/ beautiful sea view. . Question 32: I / not like / TV programme because it/ so boring. . ------ THE END ------ Page 9/21
PHÒNG GD & ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 -------------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 (Đề này có 03 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Họ và tên: .................................................................. Lớp: ............. Mã đề 604 Scores: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2,0 points) Task 1. Listen and tick True (T) or False (F). There is one example. (1,0 point) Sentences T F Question 0: She’s in class 7. √ Question 1: Her name is Daisy Speak. Question 2: The name of the book is Aunts. Question 3: The sports video is about tennis . Question 4: The kind of music is film music . Task 2. Listen and circle A, B or C (1,0 point) Question 5. Which animal is Tom’s favourite pet? A. The black spider B. The mouse C. The snake Question 6. Which girl is Fred’s cousin? A. She’s wearing a yellow shirt and trousers. B. She’s wearing the blue dress. C. She’s wearing the yellow dress. Question 7. What's Kim doing? A. washing her hair B. cooking the supper C. watching TV Question 8. What can Paul have for his game? A. The old map B. The box C. The old camera II. LANGUAGE (2,0 points) Circle the correct answer A, B, C, or D Question 9. Home is place in the world. A. the safest B. the most safe C. the most safest D. the safe Question 10. If Lan finishes her class, she ___________her mother with the housework. A. helping B. help C. will help D. helps Question 11. Are there any good programs teenagers on TV tonight? A. with B. for C. to D. of Question 12. We tried our best we didn’t get good marks. A. but B. and C. so D. because Question 13. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. A. discount B. marine C. pancake D. wardrobe Page 10/21
Question 14. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentence. I think robots now cannot do complicated things or communicate with people. A. easy B. simple C. uncomplicated D. difficult Question 15. What would you like to drink?- . A. Don’t worry B. Not at all C. I’m sorry D. Some coffee, please. Question 16. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others’. A. natural B. tomato C. bath D. garden III. READING (2,0 points) Task 1. Complete the reading passage. Write ONE suitable word in each blank. (1,0 point) Physical activity is the (17) obvious benefit of sports participation. Children often spend too much time watching television or (18) _______ video games. But sports practices and games provide an opportunity for exercise that can help keep kids in shape and healthy. Sports participation can help children develop social skills that will benefit them throughout their entire lives. They learn to interact not only with other children their age, (19) also with older individuals in their coaches and sports officials. Kids learn leadership skills, team-building skills and communication skills that will help them in school, their future (20) _______ and personal relationships. Question 17. A. most B. much C. least D. more Question 18. A. playing B. paying C. watching D. doing Question 19. A. but B. so C. and D. then Question 20. A. world B. game C. career D. shape Task 2. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question (1,0 point). I always wish to have a motor home in my life. My motor-home will not need to be big, but it might have everything I need inside. There will be a small sofa and a lovely table in the head of the car. This will be the place for my friends when they visit me. It is like a living room. The biggest part of my motor home will be my kitchen. It will be in the middle of the car. There will be an automatic dishwasher, a modern fridge, a small oven and an automatic washing machine in the kitchen. A small toilet will be in the kitchen, too. The last part will be my bedroom, also my entertainment place. There will be a small bed, a wireless TV, and a high-tech computer. Everything might be small in my motor home. It would be fantastic if I had my own motor-home. The best thing about having a motor home is that I can drive it myself and travel around. Question 21. What kind of the house does the writer wish to have? A. An auto house B. A motor home C. a space houseboat Question 22. How many parts are there in the house? A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 Question 23. The word “ it” (in line 4 ) refers to “___________.” Page 11/21
A. a kitchen B. a motorhome C. a bedroom Question 24. What is NOT true about this house? A. The writer will have to do the laundry by hand. B. It will not be very big. C. It has everything that the write needs inside. IV. WRITING Task 1. Choose the best sentence that has the same meaning as the given by circling A, B, C or D. (1,0 point) Question 25. This is my new bicycle, not your new bicycle. A. This new bicycle is me, not yours. B. This new bicycle is mine, not yours. C. This is my new bicycle , not yours new bicycle. D. This new bicycle is mine, not your. Question 26. You should try hard, or you won’t pass the exam. A. Unless you don’t study hard, you won’t pass the exam. B. If you don’t study hard, you won’t pass the exam. C. If you don’t study hard, you will pass the exam. D. If you study hard, you won’t pass the exam. Question 27. It will probably rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. A. It will not rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. B. It will rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. C. It might rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow . D. It might not rain a lot in Kon Tum tomorrow. Question 28. Danang attracts a lot of tourists. It has beautiful and clean beaches. A. Because DaNang has beautiful and clean beaches, it attracts a lot of tourists. B. Because DaNang it has beautiful and clean beaches, Danang attracts a lot of tourists. C. It has beautiful and clean beaches because DaNang attracts a lot of tourists. D. Because DaNang attracts a lot of tourists, it has beautiful and clean beaches. Task 2. Complete each of the following sentences using the cues given. You can use other words in addition to the cues to complete the sentences.(1.0 point) Example: / what/ your/ favorite/ type/ TV programme? → What is your favourite type of TV programme? Question 29: The / weather / bad, /so /they / cancel /their picnic. . Question 30: Robots/ not be able to/ think/ like/ humans. . Question 31: My future house / have/ a/ beautiful sea view. . Question 32: I / not like / TV programme because it/ so boring. . ------ THE END ------ Page 12/21
V. SPEAKING: (2,0ps) (Time allowed:15 minutes/ a student) PART I. Introduce yourself (at least 4 sentences: (0,5 pt) PART II. Topics (0.5pt) Topic 1: Talk about your favourite TV programme. Topic 2: Talk about the sport / game you like. Topic 3: Talk about a town / city you have visited / will visit. Topic 4: Talk about your future house. Topic 5: Talk about the environmental problem in your neighbourhood. PART III. Questions for topics (1.0pt) Topic 1: 1/ What’s your favorite TV programme / show? 2/ What channels would you like to watch? Why? 3/ How many hours a day / per week do you watch TV? 4/ Would you like to watch foreign channels? Why? 5/ When do you often watch TV? 6/ Do you watch TV when you are eating? Do you think it is good or bad? Topic 2: 1/ What sport / games do you like to play in your free time? 2/ What sport / games do you like to play at school / after school? Can you play it well? 3/ What sport / games do you like to watch on TV? 4/ Would you like to play sports? Why or Why not? 5/ Is playing sports good or bad for your health? Topic 3: 1. Have you ever visited Hoi An? 2. Where are you going to go on a holiday this summer? 3.Which country do you want to visit? Why? Topic 4: 1. Where will you live in the future? 2. What will it be surrounded by? 3. What will it be like? 4. How many rooms? 5. What appliances might it have? Topic 5: 1. What is the environmental problem in your neighbourhood? 2. Is it serious? 3. What are the effects of the problem to people? 4. What can you do to reduce that problem? *********THE END******** Page 13/21
PHÒNG GD & ĐT TP KON TUM HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KIỂM TRA CUỐI KÌ II TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC: 2022-2023 Môn: Tiếng Anh 6 ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM A. HƯỚNG DẪN CHUNG: Tổng cộng 10 điểm I. Listening: 2,0 điểm 2,0 điểm = 8 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.25 điểm II. Language: 2,0 điểm 2,0 điểm = 8 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.25 điểm III. Reading: 2,0 điểm 2,0 điểm = 8 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu chọn đúng từ được 0.25 điểm IV. Writing: 2,0 điểm 2,0 điểm = 8 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu chọn đúng từ được 0.25 điểm V. Speaking: 2,0 điểm - Giới thiệu bản thân: 0,5 điểm - Trình bày 1 bài nói cá nhân (đã có thời gian chuẩn bị trước khi nói) về một trong số những chủ đề liên quan đến bài từ Unit 7->Unit 11: 0,5 điểm - Hiều và trả lời được câu hỏi của GK và trả lời 1 cách linh hoạt. Sử dụng ngôn ngữ 1 cách tự nhiên và thuần thục (4 câu hỏi) 1,0 điểm B. ĐÁP ÁN PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (CÂU 1→28) ĐỀ 601 1F 2.F 3.T 4.T 5B 6C 7C 8A 9A 10A 11A 12B 13D 14B 15B 16D 17D 18C 19B 20C 21C 22C 23B 24B 25D 26A 27C 28C ĐỀ 602 1F 2.F 3.T 4.T 5C 6C 7C 8C 9C 10D 11D 12A 13A 14D 15A 16D 17C 18C 19C 20B 21C 22A 23C 24C 25D 26A 27A 28D ĐỀ 603 1F 2.F 3.T 4.T 5A 6C 7B 8C 9A 10C 11D 12C 13C 14D 15D 16C 17C 18B 19A 20A 21C 22C 23A 24B 25D 26B 27B 28B ĐỀ 604 1F 2.F 3.T 4.T 5A 6A 7A 8C 9A 10C 11B 12A 13B 14D 15D 16A 17A 18A 19A 20C 21B 22A 23A 24A 25B 26B 27C 28A Page 14/21