Đề thi học sinh giỏi cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT huyện Mù Cang Chải

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học sinh giỏi cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT huyện Mù Cang Chải

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI THCS CẤP TRƯỜNG PTDTBT TH&THCS HUYỆN KIM NỌI Năm học 2022 - 2023 Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 9 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút ( Đề thi có gồm 5 phần, gồm 06 trang,) Số phách Điểm của bài thi Họ, tên và chữ kí của giám khảo (Do chủ tịch HĐCT ghi) Bằng số: Giám khảo 1: Bằng chữ: Giám khảo 2: PART I: LISTENING (3 points) - Phần nghe có 2 bài, mỗi bài được nghe 2 lần. - Trước mỗi phần nghe, thí sinh có 45 giây để đọc bài. - Sau mỗi phần nghe, thí sinh có 20 giây để kiểm tra kết quả. Question I: Listen and fill in each blank with ONE word, you will hear the recording twice. (1 point) I’m a bit shy when I have to speak in ...(1)... . I’m a little worried about making mistakes. I also still lack confidence. Many of my friends don’t worry about mistakes. They just talk and talk. They always get their message across, even if their...(2)... is wrong. I think this is the best thing to do. My...(3)...always says it’s best to learn by doing. If I don’t try to...(4)... English, I’ll never be able to use it when I need it. One thing I started doing recently was talking to myself. I have short conversations with myself. I ... (5)... it works. I also make short stories about people and say them aloud. I do this in my room, of course. People would think I’m crazy if I did it in class or on the train. Your answers 1..................... 2...................... 3....................... 4...................... 5...................... Question II. Listen to Jenny talking to Mark about buying a computer game. Choose the correct answer for each question. You will hear the recording twice. Example: 0- A . (1 point) 0. The name of the computer game is ____________. A. City 2010 B. City 2001 C. City 2100 1. The game is NOT good for people under ____________. A. eight B. ten C. twelve 2. Black's PC shop is in ____________. A. Cambridge B. London C. Peterstown 3. The address of the shop is ____________. A. 29 Hunter Road B. 29 Marsden Street C. 29 Walker Street 4. The last day you can get a free game is ____________. 1
A. Friday B. Monday C. Thursday 5. The computer game cost ____________. A. £16 B. £60 C. £26 Your answers 1..................... 2...................... 3....................... 4...................... 5...................... Question III. You will hear a man asking for information about a train. Listen and complete the questions. You will hear the conversation twice. Listen and fill in the missing information. (0) is example: To: (0) Newcastle Day of journey: (1) …………………………………………………………………… Train leaves at: (2) …………………………………………………………………… Return ticket costs: £ (3) ……………………………………………………………… Food on train: (4) Drinks and ………………………………………………………… Address of travel agency: (5) 22 ……………………………………………… Street. Your answers 1..................... 2...................... 3....................... 4...................... 5...................... PART II: PHONETICS (1 point) Question I: Pick out the word that has the bold part pronounced differently from the rest. (0.5 point) 1. A. offer B. center C. writer D. prefer 2. A. moon B. door C. noon D. cool 3. A. those B. this C. thank D. than 4. A. visited B. moved C. smiled D. agreed 5. A. bedrooms B. players C. students D. windows Your answers 1..................... 2...................... 3....................... 4...................... 5...................... Question II: Pick out the word that has different stress pattern from the rest. (0.5 point) 1. A. appliance B. activity C. average D. adventure 2. A. favorite B. government C. influence D. identify 3. A. economic B. volcanic C.disappointed D. scientific 4. A. reputation B. description C. suggestion D. pollution 5. A. magazine B. pictures C. documentary D. entertain Your answers 1..................... 2...................... 3....................... 4...................... 5...................... PART III: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (7 points) Question I: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. (3 points) 1. Million of people have ..................with virus SARS COVID 2 in over six months. 2
A. gone up B. got down C. gone down D. suffered 2. The crowd at a football match are often .................. A. excite B. excited C. exciting D. excitement 3. William suggested ……………. at home for a change. A. staying B. to stay C. stay D. stayed 4. She was very surprised________ the grade she received. A. at B. on C. of D. about 5. He is the most humorous man …………………… I have ever met. A. who B. whose C. that D. which 6. John likes Vietnamese songs very much _________ he doesn’t know Vietnamese well. A. and B. although C. or D. becauseith hi 7. Peter never comes to class late, …………………….? A. doesn’t he B. do he C. don’t he D. does he 8. He never pays …………………. to the safety rules. A. attention B. action C. money D. activity 9. A: “Would you like to have dinner with me?” B: “…………” A. Yes, so do I B. I’m very happy C. Yes, It is D. Yes, I’d love to 10. Does Mirian need that …………………. chair? A. wooden small square B. small quare wooden C. square wooden D. wooden small square 11. If he were older, he ……………………. vote. A. will B. can C. could D. will be able to 12. Don’t let my mother watch any of those sappy movies. She cries at the drop of a …… A. hat B. bag C. cat D. rag 13. Everyone on the board of directors ........ with the planned merger. A. agreeing B. agree C. have agreed D. agrees 14. Gold_____ in California in the nineteenth century. A. they discovered B. has been discovered C. was discovering D. was discovered 15. The main …………. of this campaign is to help people save energy. A. cause B. result C. purpose D. reason Your answers 1. ..................... 2. ..................... 3. ..................... 4. ..................... 5. ..................... 6. ..................... 7. ..................... 8. ..................... 9. ..................... 10. .................... 11. .................... 12. .................... 13. .................... 14. .................... 15. .................... Question II: Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (2 points) I (write) (1) ....................................... to express my dissatisfaction of my stay at the Lord Hotel in London last weekend. I (book) (2) ...................................... the hotel in Sweden and also (receive) (3) ............................. information about the hotel. I (promise) 3
(4) ................................ a luxury weekend. However, I (be) (5) ..................................... not satisfied. The room was comfortable, but the traffic from the road opposite the hotel (make) (6) .................................... it impossible to (sleep) (7) ............................ I (ask) (8) ...................................... for another room, but no single rooms (be) (9) ................................. available. I required room-service one night and I (have) (10) .................................. to wait for almost one hour before someone came. Your answers 1. ..................... 2. ..................... 3. ..................... 4. ..................... 5. ..................... 6. ..................... 7. ..................... 8. ..................... 9. ..................... 10. .................... Question III: Fill in each blank with the correct form of the word given in capitals. (2 points) 1. He is interested in the …………… of old building. (preserve) 2. Don't depend on him; he's a very ………………….. person. (rely) 3. Rob was dismissed after being told by his………that he must leave in a month's time. (employ) 4. He's quite an……… person. He plays lots of sport and goes running everyday (energy) 5. English is a……………easy language for Swedes to learn. (compare) 6. I think it's very………of him to expect us to work overtime every night this week. (reason) 7. His boss told him off because he had behaved …………... (responsible) 8. She left school with good …………. (qualify) 9. She has one of the biggest ………… in Britain (collect) 10. Sorry about the mistakes, I …………. the instructions you gave me. (understand) Your answers 1. ..................... 2. ..................... 3. ..................... 4. ..................... 5. ..................... 6. ..................... 7. ..................... 8. ..................... 9. ..................... 10. .................... PART IV: READING (5 points) Question I: Read the passage and choose the best word or phrase to fill in each blank. (2 points). Energy saving Saving energy doesn’t have to be expensive or time-consuming. But what can you do to save energy? There is (1)______ that you can do to help the process of energy conservation. You can save energy by doing things like making sure that the kettle doesn’t (2)______ more water than that you need, always washing a full load in the washing machine rather than a half load or turning down your central heating by 1 0C – this could cut your (3)______ bill by 10%. Making sure that hot water taps are not left (4)______ and replace washers if your taps drip. (5)______ work you can turn off (6)______ light and your computer if you are not using them. (7)______ to energy-saving light bulbs – these use around a quarter of electricity, and often last eight times (8)______ 4
than an ordinary bulb. Close your curtains at (9)______ to keep the warm air from escaping through the windows. Switching off (10)______ appliances when they are not in use makes a big contribution to energy-saving, too. 1. A. plenty B. lot C. little D. few 2. A. consist B. contain C. compose D. include 3. A. hot B. heat C. heating D. heated 4. A. run B. ran C. running D. flowing 5. A. By B. At C. In D. On 6. A. any B. all C. those D. no 7. A. Change B. Consume C. Buy D. Sell 8. A. higher B. shorter C. less D. more 9. A. morning B. evening C. dusk D. afternoon 10. A. electricity B. electronic C. electric D. electrical Your answers 1. ..................... 2. ..................... 3. ..................... 4. ..................... 5. ..................... 6. ..................... 7. ..................... 8. ..................... 9. ..................... 10. .................... Question II: Read the following passage and use ONE word to fill in each gap. (2 points) Television is an important invention of the twentieth century. It has been ....(1).... popular that now we can't imagine what life would be ....(2) .... if there were no television. Television is a major ....(3).... of communication. It brings pictures and sounds from around the world into millions of homes. Through ....(4)...., viewers can see and learn about people, places and things in faraway lands.Television ....(5).... our knowledge by introducing to us new ideas ....(6).... may lead us to new hobbies and recreations. In addition ....(7).... the news, television provides us with a variety of programs that can satisfy ....(8).... taste. Most people now seem to like spending their evenings ....(9).... television. It is more convenient for them to sit at home watching TV ....(10).... to go out for amusements anywhere else. Your answers 1. ..................... 2. ..................... 3. ..................... 4. ..................... 5. ..................... 6. ..................... 7. ..................... 8. ..................... 9. ..................... 10. .................... Question III: Read the passage carefully and choose the best answers. (1 points) Paper is named for papyrus, a reed like plant used by ancient Egyptians as writing material more than 5000 years ago. The Chinese invented the paper that we use 2000 years ago. A piece of paper is really made up of tiny fibers, unlike a piece of material. The fibers used in paper, however, are plant fibers, and there are millions of them in one sheet. In addition to the plant fiber, dyes and additives such as resin may be used. Dyes can make the paper different colors; resin may add weight and texture. 5
Where do these fibers come from ? The majority of paper is made from the plant fiber that comes from trees. Millions are cut down, but new trees are planted in their place. Paper may be also made from things like old rags or pieces of cloth. Wastepaper, paper that has been made and used, can be turned into recycled paper. This recycling process saves forest, energy and reduces air and water pollution. 1. According to the passage, the paper that we use was first invented by A. foresters B. the Egyptians C. ancient cultures D. the Chinese 2. What is the main ingredient in most paper? A. resin B. cardboard C. plant fiber D. papyrus 3. According to the passage, the primary source of the plant fiber used in paper is A. rags B. trees C. fabric D. wastepaper 4. According to the passage, recycling paper is A. bad for the environment C. good for the environment B. wasteful D. economical 5. According to the passage, recycling paper does all of the following EXCEPT A. reduce the need for ink C. save energy B. save forests D. reduce air pollution Your answers 1. ..................... 2. ..................... 3. ..................... 4. ..................... 5. ..................... PART V: WRITING (4 points) Question I: Rewrite each of the sentences so that the new one has the same meaning as the given one. (1 point) 1. We got lost because we didn't have a map. => If we .................................................................................................................................. 2. I would prefer you to deliver the sofa on Friday. => I would rather..................................................................................................................... 3. The bridge was so low that the bus couldn't go under it. => It was ................................................................................................................................. 4. I last saw him when I was a student. => I haven't ............................................................................................................................. 5. She will complete the work only she is paid extra. => She will not ...................................................................................................................... Question II: Paragraph writing (3 points) A friend of yours has written to you, asking for some advice. He wants to visit your country for three weeks this summer and would like to know which places to visit, where to stay, what sights to see, and what clothes to bring. Write to him, giving as many suggestions as you can and mentioning any national customs that may seem strange to him. (About 200 words) ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 6
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Mùa Lục Quân XÁC NHẬN CỦA TỔ CHUYÊN MÔN XÁC NHẬN CỦA NHÀ TRƯỜNG Ngô Thị Quỳnh Nguyễn Mai Hương 8
Câu Đáp án Điểm Part 1: 1 điểm 1.English 0,2 điểm 2. grammar 0,2 điểm 3. teacher 0,2 điểm 4. speak 0,2 điểm 5. think 0,2 điểm Part 2: 1 điểm 1. A 0,2 điểm 2. B 0,2 điểm A. LISTENING 3. B 0,2 điểm 3 điểm 4. A 0,2 điểm 5. C 0,2 điểm Part 3: 1 điểm 1. Tuesday 0,2 điểm 2. 11.30 0,2 điểm 3. 40 0,2 điểm 4. sandwiches 0,2 điểm 5. Mallet 0,2 điểm Part 1: 1 điểm 1. D 0,1 điểm 2. B 0,1 điểm B. PHONETICS 3. C 0,1 điểm 1 điểm 4. A 0,1 điểm 5. C 0,1 điểm Câu II: 1 điểm 1. B 0,1 điểm 9
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